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Episode Notes

Source / episode info

  • Episode: 336
  • Title: Divine Intervention Episode 336 – USMLE Step 2 CK Rapid Review Series 64 (+8/25-28 Step 2 CK/3 Course Reminder).
  • Published: 2021-08-24
  • Source: Episode page

One-liner

This episode provides a rapid review of high-yield topics including optic neuritis associated with MS, the differential diagnosis and management of neurodegenerative conditions (AD, CJD, WNS), complex pharmacology involving acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for various indications, and specific seizure/vascular patterns.

High-yield summary

  • Optic Neuritis: Classically associated with Multiple Sclerosis (MS). Diagnosis requires MRI of the brain with IV contrast; treatment is an ophthalmologic emergency requiring IV corticosteroids to prevent permanent blindness.
  • Acetylcholinesterase Inhibitors (A ChE Is): Used for multiple conditions: Alzheimer's disease (Donepezil, Galantamine, Rivastigmine), Myasthenia Gravis (Pyridostigmine), and post-operative ileus/bladder overflow (Neostigmine).
  • Neurodegenerative Markers: West Nile Syndrome (WNS) is associated with copper excess and low serum ceruloplasmin; Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) is a prion disease marked by elevated 14-3-3 protein in CSF.
  • Absence Seizures: A generalized seizure type characterized on EEG by the classic "3 Hz spike and slow wave" pattern, treated with Ethosuximide.
  • Organophosphate Poisoning: Presents as a cholinergic crisis (SLUDGE syndrome). Treatment involves administering an anticholinergic receptor antagonist (Atropine) followed by enzyme regeneration (Pralidoxime).

Learning objectives

  • Differentiate the clinical presentation, diagnostic markers, and management of optic neuritis versus other causes of vision loss.
  • Apply knowledge of acetylcholinesterase inhibitor pharmacology across various conditions (AD, MG, ileus).
  • Recognize the key laboratory findings associated with neurodegenerative disorders like WNS and CJD.
  • Understand the pathophysiology and treatment protocols for specific seizure types, such as absence seizures.
  • Master the emergency management steps for cholinergic crises (organophosphate poisoning) and anticholinergic overdoses.

Board exam buzzwords

ConditionKey FindingAssociationBoard Exam Tip
Optic NeuritisUnilateral afferent pupillary defectMultiple Sclerosis (MS)Always treat with IV corticosteroids; suspect MS if recurrent/multiple episodes occur.
West Nile SyndromeLow serum ceruloplasminCopper excess / Basal ganglia depositionContraindicates copper-containing IU Ds due to systemic copper overload.
Absence Seizures3 Hz spike and slow wave (EEG)Generalized seizure typeFirst-line treatment is Ethosuximide; avoid drugs that affect T-type calcium channels.
Organophosphate PoisoningCholinergic Crisis (SLUDGE)Atropine + PralidoximeRemember the sequence: Antagonist first (Atropine), then reactivator (Pralidoxime).

Rapid review table

TopicKey PointContextExam Relevance
Optic NeuritisIV Corticosteroids are mandatory.Acute vision loss, often associated with MS.High-yield emergency management; failure to treat can lead to permanent blindness.
A ChE Is (AD)Donepezil, Galantamine, Rivastigmine.Boosting acetylcholine levels in Alzheimer's disease.Distinguish from A ChEI uses for MG or ileus.
CJDElevated 14-3-3 protein in CSF.Prion disease; rapidly progressive dementia with myoclonus.High-yield diagnostic marker; remember it is a contraindication to transplantation.
Absence SeizuresEthosuximide (T-type CCB).Generalized seizures presenting as staring spells.The specific EEG pattern and drug class are critical for diagnosis/treatment.

Board-speak -> diagnosis

Board-speak / Vignette phraseDiagnosis / ConceptWhy it fits
A 32-year-old female presents with acute vision loss and a unilateral afferent pupillary defect, following an episode of blurred vision two years prior.Optic Neuritis (associated with MS)The combination of optic nerve symptoms and the history of recurrent neurological deficits strongly suggests demyelination; IV corticosteroids are required for immediate treatment.
A patient presents with progressive cognitive decline, myoclonus, and a family history of chronic neurological issues. CSF analysis reveals elevated 14-3-3 protein.Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD)CJD is a rapidly progressing prion disease; the 14-3-3 protein elevation in CSF is highly characteristic for diagnosis.
A patient with cognitive decline and movement disorders has a history of chronic neurological issues, and diagnostic testing shows low serum ceruloplasmin levels.West Nile Syndrome (WNS)WNS involves copper deposition in the basal ganglia; low ceruloplasmin is the key lab marker, and copper IU Ds are contraindicated due to copper excess.
A patient has post-operative ileus or urinary bladder overflow symptoms.Neostigmine administrationThese conditions involve decreased GI/bladder motility. A ChE Is like neostigmine stimulate acetylcholine release, thereby increasing muscle contraction (motility).
A patient is exposed to an organophosphate pesticide and presents with excessive salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, gastrointestinal cramping, and emesis (SLUDGE).Cholinergic Crisis / Organophosphate PoisoningThis classic cholinergic toxidrome requires immediate reversal using Atropine (antagonist) followed by Pralidoxime (enzyme reactivator).
A 5-year-old child is diagnosed with generalized seizures, and the EEG shows a characteristic pattern of 3 Hz spike and slow wave.Absence SeizuresThis specific triad (generalized seizure type + 3 Hz pattern) points directly to absence seizures; Ethosuximide is the first-line treatment.

Differential diagnosis / distinguishing features

Neurodegenerative Conditions

Key FeaturesDistinguishing FindingsNext Step
West Nile Syndrome (WNS)Progressive cognitive decline, movement disorders; copper excess.Low serum ceruloplasmin; avoid copper-containing IU Ds.
Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD)Rapidly progressive dementia, myoclonus; prion disease.Elevated 14-3-3 protein in CSF; no treatment available.

Management pearls

  • For suspected optic neuritis associated with MS, the immediate next step is to administer IV corticosteroids regardless of other initial workup findings.
  • In a patient presenting with signs of cholinergic crisis (SLUDGE), always prioritize administering Atropine first to block excess muscarinic receptors, followed by Pralidoxime.
  • When managing bladder overflow or post-operative ileus, the goal is increasing smooth muscle tone; A ChE Is like neostigmine are used for this purpose.
  • The presence of a unilateral afferent pupillary defect (APD) in combination with vision loss should immediately raise suspicion for optic neuritis and MS workup.

Don't miss

🚨
CJD: It is a contraindication to organ transplantation due to its fatal nature, regardless of the patient's overall condition.
🚨
WNS: The key diagnostic test is checking serum ceruloplasmin; low levels indicate copper excess.
🚨
Absence Seizures: Always remember the classic 3 Hz spike and slow wave pattern on EEG, which guides treatment selection (Ethosuximide).
🚨
Organophosphate Poisoning: Treat with Atropine first to manage muscarinic effects, then Pralidoxime to reactivate acetylcholinesterase.

Integration & clinical reasoning

  • Pharmacology Integration: The concept of A ChE Is is highly integrated across multiple systems: CNS (AD), Musculoskeletal/Neuromuscular Junction (MG), and GI/Urinary Tract (Ileus/Bladder Overflow). Understanding the mechanism (boosting A Ch) allows for differential diagnosis based on the target receptor or tissue.
  • Neuroscience Integration: The progression from optic neuritis to MS, or from WNS to basal ganglia deposition, illustrates how autoimmune processes and metabolic toxins can affect central nervous system structures.

OMM / COMLEX integration

🦴
For COMLEX: know these viscerosomatics / Chapman points, but don't let OMM distract from emergent diagnosis and management.
  • Standard emergency management takes priority over OMM/OMT principles in acute, unstable conditions like cholinergic crisis or adrenal insufficiency (if discussed).
  • For neurological presentations (e.g., CJD), the focus remains on supportive care and recognizing terminal prognosis; OMT is not applicable for cure.

Concept connections / cross-references

  • No explicit cross-references.

High-yield association table

ConditionAssociationMechanismClinical Significance
Optic NeuritisMultiple Sclerosis (MS)Demyelination of the optic nerve.Suggests an underlying autoimmune process; requires high suspicion for MS workup.
West Nile SyndromeCopper excess / Low ceruloplasminCopper deposition in basal ganglia.Contraindicates copper-containing contraceptives (e.g., IUD).
Organophosphate PoisoningCholinergic CrisisInhibition of A ChE -> massive A Ch buildup.Requires immediate Atropine administration to block muscarinic effects.
Absence SeizuresEthosuximideT-type calcium channel blocker action.Specific drug class required for effective seizure control; avoid other CC Bs.

Key terms glossary

TermDefinitionContextExample
Acetylcholinesterase Inhibitor (A ChEI)Drug class that prevents the breakdown of acetylcholine, increasing its concentration in the synapse.Used to treat AD, MG, and post-operative ileus.Donepezil (AD), Pyridostigmine (MG).
Unilateral Afferent Pupillary Defect (APD)A diminished or absent pupillary light reflex on one side; indicates optic nerve dysfunction.Suggests unilateral damage to the optic nerve, highly suspicious for Optic Neuritis.Finding in a patient suspected of having MS.
CeruloplasminPlasma protein that carries copper; levels are used as a diagnostic marker for copper metabolism disorders.Low levels suggest systemic copper overload (e.g., WNS).A low level suggests the need to rule out Wilson's or WNS.
EthosuximideSpecific anticonvulsant drug acting as a T-type calcium channel blocker.First-line treatment for absence seizures.Used in children presenting with staring spells and 3 Hz EEG pattern.

Study optimization

TopicStudy ApproachPriorityResources
Pharmacology (A ChE Is)Create a flow chart mapping the drug to the specific condition/mechanism of action.HighReview board-specific tables for A ChEI uses and antidotes.
Neurodegenerative DiseasesFocus on the unique diagnostic marker (e.g., 14-3-3, low ceruloplasmin) rather than just symptoms.Medium-HighCompare WNS vs. CJD markers; memorize contraindications (Copper IUD).
Seizures/VascularMaster the classic EEG patterns and associated treatments for generalized seizures.HighReview specific seizure types (Absence, Tonic-Clonic) and their drug targets.

Question pattern recognition

  • Pattern: Unilateral vision loss + APD -> Optic Neuritis. This is a high-yield association with MS; always consider IV steroids as the initial treatment.
  • Pattern: Cognitive decline + Myoclonus + Elevated 14-3-3 in CSF -> CJD. Remember that CJD patients are generally considered non-transplantable due to prognosis.
  • Pattern: Staring spells + Generalized seizure type + EEG showing 3 Hz spike and slow wave -> Absence Seizures. The specific drug class (T-type CCB) is the key differentiator for treatment.

Test yourself

Common mistakes to avoid

🚫
Mistake in A ChEI Use: Do not assume that because a drug class (A ChE Is) is used to treat AD, it can be used for all other motility issues (e.g., MG or ileus). The specific agent and mechanism must be considered.
🚫
Misinterpreting CJD/WNS Markers: Confusing the diagnostic markers; WNS involves low ceruloplasmin due to copper excess, while CJD involves 14-3-3 protein in CSF.
🚫
Overlooking the Sequence of Antidotes: When managing organophosphate poisoning, forgetting the sequence (Atropine first, then Pralidoxime) is a common error.

Common traps

⚠️
The "Derivative Answer" Trap: The board may list multiple A ChE Is (e.g., Donepezil, Pyridostigmine, Neostigmine) and ask for the drug used in a specific context (e.g., MG vs. Ileus). You must match the drug to the condition/mechanism.
⚠️
The "Contraindication" Trap: Knowing that WNS causes copper excess means you must remember to avoid any copper-containing medical devices, such as the Copper IUD.
⚠️
The "Timing" Trap (Organophosphates): The question may ask for the next step after Atropine administration; failure to identify Pralidoxime will result in an incorrect answer.

Original transcript with highlights

Original transcript with highlights

Okay, welcome. My name is Devine. This is episode 336 of the Divine Intervention Podcast. I'm going to be continuing our rapid review series for the US Emily Step 2 CK exam. Obviously this also applies to people taking the step 3 exam. Okay, so what if they give you a question about and again I guess one thing I should zero quick. If you're taking step 2 CK anytime soon or step 3 anytime soon let's say like the end of this month or early next month I know many people are trying to get their scores in time for ER As. I do have a review course. It starts with the NBME Testicking Strategies course. It's taking place tomorrow from 2 to 4 30 p.m. Pacific Standard Time. And then the review course for step 2 CK step 3 takes place Thursday Friday Saturday of this week from 8 to noon Pacific Standard Time. We'll take a one-hour break and then we'll go from 1 to 5 Pacific Standard Time. Again we're going to cover tons of subjects. Pied surgery I am Opie Guy, psych, neuro, ethics, bio stats, professionalism, communications, healthcare systems, multi-system processes and disorders. Again I've had many people that have taken the exam especially people that have taken the exam like very recently. I've actually found the course to be extremely helpful. I've heard I've got many emails from students that attended saying oh wow a lot of the things we discussed should up on my exam. So if you're interested just ship me an email through the website and I'll give you some more information.

So let's just jump right into it. So what if they give you a question about a 32-year-old female and they tell you that two years ago she had this episode of Blur revision for about two weeks that kind of resolved. And then since she's been completely fine but that now for the last two days she has been having like pin like pin in her right eye and that pin doesn't seem to be getting better. And then they ask you for your next best step in management. Well I'll really hope on MBM exams the very first thing you want to do is to get an MRI of the brain with IV contrast right because this person likely has optic neuritis. This person likely has optic neuritis. Remember optic neuritis is classically associated on MBM exams with multiple sclerosis right. So optic neuritis associated with multiple sclerosis you diagnose it by getting an MRI of the brain with IV contrast. This is actually an ophthalmologic emergency you need to treat you need to give an IV corticosteroid to fix the person's problem right so that they don't become permanently blind. And the thing is sometimes again many people have heard me recent podcasts say that the MBM is they've been doing this thing in recent times of using derivative answers. What in the world waiting by derivative answers? Derivative answers are answers where you're like oh you're reading the question you know exactly what it is and then you look at the answer choices and you're not seeing what you're looking for right.

So a classic answer they can do for optic neuritis with multiple sclerosis is they can call it unilateral afferent popularity defect okay. Unilateral afferent popularity defect. Because remember it's a problem with crinonor of two right that's what's called optic neuritis. Crinonor of two is the optic nerve right. So if you see a unilateral afferent popularity defect again an woman that seems to have these neurologic deficits that seem to come and go I really want you to think about optic neuritis associated with multiple sclerosis right. And again remember with trigoptic neuritis because optic neuritis is almost considered an exacerbation of a person's MS we're gonna treat those people with IV corticosteroids to cause immediate remittance of their symptoms. Now what if they give you a question about about a 42 year old female and they tell you that for the last you know six months she has started losing her way like she has started being very forgetful not able to find the supermarket not able to get back home and she's beginning to become more and more dependent on individuals as her you know for her activities of daily living and they ask you what's the most likely genetic disease this person has. I really hope you're seeing this person has Down syndrome right. It's person has Down syndrome. Membrane Down syndrome. These people they have trisomy 21 right so on chromosome 21 that's where you have the gene that codes for the amyloid precursor protein right.

So the thing is these people over time because they have like three doses of the protein product of the gene APP they basically develop a deposit a lot of amyloid plucks in their cortex right in their brains and those people ultimately end up getting in a lot of trouble with Alzheimer's. Many people I'll see the vast majority of people that have Down syndrome they're gonna get Alzheimer's around the age of 40 right so that's something that's I owed to keep in mind for for exams.

Remember when people have Alzheimer's the way we're gonna treat them is we're gonna give them something that's gonna boost their levels of acetylcholine because remember in Alzheimer's disease you essentially have a loss right you essentially have a loss of the basal nucleus of minor the basal nucleus of minor the basal nucleus of minor is the part of the brain that produces acetylcholine so if that part of the brain is destroyed you will not be able to make acetylcholine and that's what part of the thing that explains the pathophysiology behind Alzheimer's disease so we're gonna treat Alzheimer's disease by doing something that will boost acetylcholine levels we're gonna use a drug like Dunepezil galantamine or River Stigmin right these are all acetylcholine esteries inhibitors that have been approved for use in the treatment of Alzheimer's right so those are acetylcholine esteries inhibitors for Alzheimer's again you can not just use any acetylcholine esteries inhibitor you want right in fact since I'm talking about acetylcholine esteries inhibitors let's just kind of hit on a few key ones that they love to test on exams right so we just said that for Alzheimer's the acetylcholine esteries inhibitors that are approved are Dunepezil galantamine and River Stigmin right they boost up your levels of acetylcholine and you use those to treat Alzheimer's disease although they just maybe help you a few months or whatever the Alzheimer's release is essentially a terminal illness right and then the second group of acetylcholine esteries inhibitors I'll talk about once you think of pyridolstigmin right remember pyridolstigmin is the drug that we used to get rid of the symptoms of myestinia gravis because remember in myestinia gravis the thing that happens is that these people right they formed autoantibodies against the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor when you make autoantibo

dies against the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor then your basically going to destroy those receptors so you're not gonna be able to respond to acetylcholine right so the thing that happens is that we give an acetylcholine esteries inhibitor like pyridolstigmin that will bump up the levels of acetylcholine and those acetylcholine molecules will outcompete those nasty antibodies on the surfaces of the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor and other acetylcholine esteries inhibitor we use on MDM exams is phyzostigmin right remember we use phyzostigmin in settings of atropine overdose we use them in settings of atropine overdose because remember atropine the way it works is that it's a most macrownic receptor antagonist so when you block those most macrownic receptors you're going to get an anticholinergic toxic room you're gonna get things like things like tachycardia you're gonna get things like my dry asses right those people are gonna be really hot so they're gonna have like a fever on MDM exams but it's it's a non-infectious fever right they're gonna get a fever that is non-infectious on MDM exams so how do we treat it where we're gonna give an acetylcholine esteries inhibitor like phyzostigmin right like phyzostigmin your your fix and atropine overdose with phyzostigmin right so phyzostigmin is at acetylcholine esteries inhibitor when you inhibitor acetylcholine esteries and levels of acetylcholine are gonna go up and if you acetylcholine levels go up right that's going to outcompete that atropine that's on the surface of your of your macrownic acetylcholine receptors remember though on the flip side we use atropine right to treat organophosphate poisoning because organophosphate poisoning is almost like the reverse condition right organophosphates they are very good acetylcholine esteries inhibitors right so because they are acetylcholine esteries inhibitors right the

y're going to boost your levels of acetylcholine right and that's gonna cause that colonergic toxidrom so the president has a colonergic toxidrom it would make sense that you want to reverse that toxidrom by giving an acetylcholine receptor antagonist like atropine remember you're gonna give atropine first the first thing you always do is to give atropine after that you're gonna give prelydoxine right prelydoxine will help you regenerate the acetylcholine esteries that has been inhibited or basically crucified by by the organophosphate okay and then remember a nile stigma is another classic acetylcholine esteries inhibitor emission on an exam basically the way nile stigma works is that we use it generally for both the half-states of ilius right so let's say a person has just come out from surgery they've just had an asthesia remember an asthesia basically grinds your GI tract at a ton of opioids right so it's gonna grind your GI tract to a halt if you grind the president's GI tract to a halt that's going to cause ilius right so they're gonna have like a functional bowel obstruction so the way you're gonna fix that problem right is you're essentially gonna give nile stigma right when you give nile stigma in inhibitor acetylcholine esteries that bump up their levels of acetylcholine and that's gonna cause GI motility right that's gonna cause GI motility that's gonna cause GI motility and that's gonna release that ilius and remember we can also use nile stigma in the treatment of overflow in continents right we can use nile stigma in the treatment of overflow in continents because remember in people that have overflow in continents classically those people on NBM exams they're going to have a very high post-void residual volume right you'll have a post-void residual volume of like 300 400 500 milliliters right so the thing is those people's detrusor muscles do not sense

that the bladder is full so the thing we're gonna try to do for those people is we're going to try to make those detrusor muscles contract and the thing that makes those detrusor muscles contract is acetylcholine so if we're given acetylcholine esteries in inhibitor like in your steaming that's gonna bump up the levels of acetylcholine that's gonna stimulate those detrusor muscles and the president's gonna be able to pee although remember you can also use Bethany call or Carbacol right those are most chronic receptor agonists you can use those as well for the treatment of overflow in continents and remember overflow in continents you can also try like intermittent catheterization to get that urine out of those people's bladder okay so that's very high yield to know for for exams now what if they give you a question about an archaeologist right they tell you that you know he studies like agent animals like like old fossils and then they tell you that over the last three months he has become increasingly forgetful right and he has like these he has myoclonus right sometimes instead of telling you the word myoclonus on an in-beaming exam they'll describe it to you they'll tell you that he has been having these rhythmic jerk-like movement of his of his extremities right whenever he's stuff like that whenever he's here rapidly progressive dementia we're pressing goals from normal to demanted within like a few weeks to like a few months at best and want you to think of Kreutzfeld-Jakob disease don't you think of Kreutzfeld-Jakob disease Kreutzfeld-Jakob disease remember it's spelled as C-R-E-U-T-Z-F-E-L-D-T Kreutzfeld and then Jakob is J-A-K-O-B right disease right it's a pre-on disease right remember these people if you were to perform a longer pointer on them and you check their CSF you're gonna find increased levels of the 1433 protein right you're gonna find increased l

evels of the 1433 protein there's no treatment for CJD for present-guest CJD they're going to die and one thing I want to say that's very high-old on in-beaming exams is that having CJD is a contra indication to get in a transplant right because these people they're gonna die regardless so why give them a transplant so CJD patients do not get transplants on in-beaming exams that's very high-old to know again I know some of the things that may be seeing here maybe like I don't know if they will test that think again trust me I work with thousands of people right that I've taken this exam right I know exactly what I'm talking about here right now what if they give you a question about a patient and they tell you that oh this patient has a family history of chronicly red disease and that over the last you know four to six weeks this patient has been having so many neuropsychiatric symptoms right like he has been having like his speeches dominated by like loose associations he's saying all this weird stuff right he's he keeps to himself he stopped attending classes and stuff like that if you see something like this I really really want you to think about well-sense disease right I really really want you to think about well-sense disease remember well-sense disease is a copper is a copper excess a problem right usually that raises from an ATP 7b that's very high-old to know ATP 7b gene mutation right so the thing is many times that excess copper can go and deposit in the basal ganglia now when it deposits in the basal ganglia those people begin to have movement the soldiers so they can have Parkinson's like features right they can have neuropsych symptoms many times they tend to almost have like a schizophrenia like presentation on MDM exams now remember if a woman has well-sense disease what kind of contraceptive option should not be available to her and hope you're seein

g the copper IUD right remember the copper IUD is something that you absolutely absolutely should never give to a person that has well-sense disease remember the copper IUD also avoided in people that have like breakthrough you're in bleeding right so in general right well-sense disease they have a copper excess so you have absolutely no business giving those people a copper IUD right and remember usually these people when you the diagnostic test is to check the levels of seroloplasmin right to check the levels of seroloplasmin right the levels of seroloplasmin will be low in these people that have well-sense disease okay you'll be low in these people that have well-sense disease now what if they give you a question about a child right she's a five-year-old girl they tell you that she has no history of intellectual disability they tell you that at birth her abgascourt were eight and nine one and five minutes respectively and then they tell you that this girl that she her parents were called into school because she doesn't appear to be been attention in class right she always seems to stare staring to space during class whenever you see stuff like this right I want you think about abson seizures right this person has abson seizures this person has abson seizures now it's very high you'll remember that on mbm exams abson seizures are a kind of generalized seizure right so again you may be reading an abson seizure question and the mbm in the great kindness they will not put abson seizures and answer they'll put generalized seizures and answer if you see that that's totally fine obviously they put abson seizure that should be what you should go for first right but if you don't see that as an answer it's not a bad idea at all to pick the answer that says generalized seizure you'll be correct doing that now remember when a person has an abson seizure what are you going to f

ind on EEG remember you're going to find that three hurts or three per second remember the frequency measure right so three hurts or three per second spike and slow wave pattern you're going to see that on an EEG right again you don't need to know exactly what that looks like we need to know that buzzword right so how do we treat abson seizures remember we're going to treat abson seizures with ifo-soxamide again this is another classic classic classic classic thing that our friends at the mbm is instead of putting ifo-soxamide as an answer they'll put the derivative answer which is the drug mechanism of action remember ifo-soxamide works by being a tea type calcium channel blocker right ifo-soxamide is a tea type calcium channel blocker it's a tea type calcium channel blocker that can be used in the treatment of abson seizures right and again the thing is the mbm is occasionally they've actually written a few questions where they try to like really make this kind of question hard right so they'll give you an abson seizure question and instead of giving you that oh it should ifo-soxamide they'll actually put multiple types of calcium channel blockers as answer choices right so they can put like L type calcium channel blocker tea type calcium channel blocker P type calcium channel blocker again remember the tea in ifo-soxamide for the tea in tea type calcium channel blocker okay for the tea in tea type a calcium channel blocker now what is the most common cause on mbm exams of a central retinol vein occlusion what is the most common cause on mbm exams of a central retinol vein occlusion i really hope you're saying oh divine i'm thinking more along the lines of polycythemia vera right remember polycythemia vera tends to cause central retinol vein occlusions on mbm exams okay it tends to cause central retinol vein occlusions on mbm exams remember those people you will not

find because unlike central retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol ret retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retinol retin I figured out all the emails I was getting from people that were getting benefit from those from those life lessons I figured out just go ahead and make a new website so you can even find it on Apple Podcasts called the Divine Intervention Life Lessons.

So thank you for listening I'll see you next time God bless you. Thank you.

Practice questions — USMLE style

Question 1 — Neurology

A 32-year-old female presents to the emergency department after experiencing a two-week episode of blurred vision two years ago that resolved completely. She now reports persistent blurring and pain in her right eye over the last two days. On examination, she exhibits a diminished pupillary response on the right side compared to the left (unilateral afferent pupillary defect). Given her history and current presentation, what is the most appropriate initial diagnostic workup and management plan?

  • A) Perform an orbital CT scan and initiate topical steroid drops.
  • B) Obtain an MRI of the brain with IV contrast and administer high-dose intravenous corticosteroids.
  • C) Order a fundoscopic exam only; if normal, recommend observation and follow-up in six months.
  • D) Start immediate treatment with pyridostigmine and schedule repeat testing in two weeks.

Answer: B. Optic neuritis is strongly associated with multiple sclerosis (MS). The classic triad of symptoms includes acute vision loss, pain with eye movement, and a unilateral afferent pupillary defect. To confirm the diagnosis and rule out other causes, an MRI of the brain with IV contrast is mandatory because it can visualize demyelinating plaques in the optic nerve or surrounding white matter. Furthermore, since optic neuritis is considered an exacerbation of MS, high-dose intravenous corticosteroids are required immediately to reduce inflammation and prevent permanent vision loss.

Question 2 — Neurology/Metabolism

A 45-year-old male presents with a three-month history of progressive cognitive decline, difficulty finding words (anomia), and developing choreiform movements in his extremities. Physical examination reveals basal ganglia signs, including rigidity and tremor. Laboratory testing is ordered due to suspicion of metabolic encephalopathy. Which diagnostic test result would be most suggestive of Wilson's disease?

  • A) Low serum ceruloplasmin levels with elevated urinary copper excretion.
  • B) Elevated CSF protein levels and positive oligoclonal bands.
  • C) High plasma levels of 14-3-3 protein in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
  • D) Normal neurological exam but significantly low serum folate levels.

Answer: A. Wilson's disease is a disorder of copper metabolism caused by mutations in the ATP7 B gene, leading to excessive copper accumulation primarily in the basal ganglia and liver. The classic diagnostic findings include neuropsychiatric symptoms, movement disorders (such as chorea), and biochemical evidence of impaired copper handling, specifically low serum ceruloplasmin levels combined with elevated urinary copper excretion.

Question 3 — Pharmacology

A patient is brought to the emergency department after accidentally ingesting a large quantity of atropine sulfate. The patient presents with signs of severe anticholinergic toxicity, including tachycardia, hyperthermia (non-infectious fever), and dry mucous membranes. Which drug should be administered immediately to reverse the effects of this overdose?

  • A) Neostigmine
  • B) Pralidoxime
  • C) Physostigmine
  • D) Acetylcysteine

Answer: C. Atropine is a potent muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist, blocking cholinergic signaling. The reversal agent must be an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor (A ChEI) that can increase the concentration of acetylcholine in the synapse to outcompete the blocked receptors. Physostigmine is an A ChEI used specifically for reversing anticholinergic toxicity by acting as a non-selective A ChEI. Neostigmine and Pralidoxime are generally reserved for different types of cholinergic crises (e.g., neostigmine for GI issues, pralidoxime for organophosphate poisoning).

Question 4 — Neurology/Dementia

A 68-year-old retired archaeologist presents to the clinic with a rapidly progressive decline in cognitive function over the last four months. He exhibits profound memory loss, disorientation, and has been noted by family members to have rhythmic jerking movements (myoclonus). Physical examination is otherwise unremarkable. Which diagnosis should be considered most urgently?

  • A) Alzheimer's disease
  • B) Vascular dementia
  • C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)
  • D) Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH)

Answer: C. The combination of rapidly progressive dementia, myoclonus, and the patient's age strongly suggests Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD). CJD is a prion disease characterized by its swift progression. While other dementias exist, the rapid decline and presence of myoclonus are highly characteristic. Furthermore, CSF analysis in suspected CJD often reveals elevated levels of 14-3-3 protein. Clinically, it is also critical to remember that CJD is an absolute contraindication for organ transplantation due to its fatal nature.

Quick fire review

What finding on EEG suggests absence seizures?

3 Hz spike and slow wave pattern (or generalized seizure activity).

What is the most common cause of Central Retinal Vein Occlusion (CRVO)?

Polycythemia vera.

Which drug class treats Myasthenia Gravis by increasing acetylcholine levels?

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (e.g., Pyridostigmine).

What is the classic finding in CSF of a patient with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)?

Increased levels of 14-3-3 protein.

Which neurotransmitter loss characterizes Alzheimer's disease pathophysiology?

Acetylcholine, due to damage in the basal forebrain.

What is the primary contraindication for a patient with CJD?

Receiving a transplant (due to high mortality rate).

Drug used to treat Myasthenia Gravis by increasing acetylcholine levels?

Pyridostigmine (an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor).

What is the primary mechanism of action for Physostigmine in treating atropine overdose?

It is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that increases A Ch, allowing it to outcompete the muscarinic receptor antagonist (atropine).

Which condition involves copper excess and low serum ceruloplasmin levels?

Wilson's disease.

What specific type of calcium channel blocker is Ethosuximide?

T-type calcium channel blocker.

Name two acetylcholinesterase inhibitors approved for Alzheimer's disease treatment.

Donepezil, Galantamine, or Rivastigmine.

What are the key steps in managing organophosphate poisoning?

1) Atropine (muscarinic antagonist); 2) Pralidoxime (reactivates A ChE).

Quick recall / Anki-style questions

Drug used to treat Myasthenia Gravis by increasing acetylcholine levels?

Pyridostigmine (an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor).

What is the primary mechanism of action for Physostigmine in treating atropine overdose?

It is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that increases A Ch, allowing it to outcompete the muscarinic receptor antagonist (atropine).

Which condition involves copper excess and low serum ceruloplasmin levels?

Wilson's disease.

What specific type of calcium channel blocker is Ethosuximide?

T-type calcium channel blocker.

Name two acetylcholinesterase inhibitors approved for Alzheimer's disease treatment.

Donepezil, Galantamine, or Rivastigmine.

What are the key steps in managing organophosphate poisoning?

1) Atropine (muscarinic antagonist); 2) Pralidoxime (reactivates A ChE).